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NEW QUESTION: 1
During a security audit of IT processes, an IS auditor found that there were no documented security procedures. The IS auditor should:
A. identify and evaluate existing practices.
B. conduct compliance testing.
C. terminate the audit.
D. create the procedures document.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
One of the main objectives of an audit is to identify potential risks; therefore, the most proactive approach would be to identify and evaluate the existing security practices being followed by the organization. IS auditors should not prepare documentation, as doing so could jeopardize their independence. Terminating the audit may prevent achieving one of the basic audit objectives, i.e., identification of potential risks. Since there are no documented procedures, there is no basis against whichto test compliance.

NEW QUESTION: 2
Which of the following does the TOGAF ADM recommend for use in developing the Architecture Vision document?
A. Migration Planning Techniques
B. Architecture Principles
C. Interoperability Analysis
D. Risk Management Techniques
E. Business Scenarios
Answer: E

NEW QUESTION: 3
An enterprise customer with remote offices wants an iSCSI storage solution that can be easily expanded. The solution must be able to support an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) offering.
Which HP storage product should this customer consider?
A. HPStoreAII
B. HP StoreVirtual
C. HPStoreEver
D. HPStoreEasy
Answer: D

NEW QUESTION: 4
Tamara Ogle, CFA, and Isaac Segovia, CAIA, are portfolio managers for Luca's Investment Management (Luca's). Ogle and Segovia both manage large institutional investment portfolios for Luca's and are researching portfolio optimization strategies.
Ogle and Segovia begin by researching the merits of active versus passive portfolio management. Ogle advocates a passive approach, pointing out that on a risk-adjusted basis, most managers cannot beat a passive index strategy. Segovia points out that there will always be a need for active portfolio managers because as prices deviate from fair value, active managers will bring prices back into equilibrium. They determine that Treynor-Black models permit active management within the context of normally efficient markets.
Ogle decides to implement Treynor-Black models in her practice and starts the implementation process. In conversations with her largest client's risk manager, Jim King, FRM, she is asked about separation theorem in relation to active portfolio management. She responds that separation theorem more properly relates to asset prices deviating from and gravitating toward their theoretical fair price. King next asks Ogle about the differences between the Sharpe ratio and the information ratio and the difference between the security market line (SML) and the capital market line (CML).
After reallocating her client portfolios based on using the Treynor-Black model, Ogle discusses the results with Segovia. Ogle states that she is satisfied with the current methodology, but given her preference for passive management, she is still concerned about relying on analyst's forecasts. Segovia tells Ogle that he will research methods for modifying the Treynor-Black model to account for analyst forecasts.
The optimal risky portfolio determined by the Treynor-Black model has an allocation of 30% to the active portfolio and a Sharpe ratio of 0.45. Given that the risk-free rate is 3%, the standard deviation of the market (passive) portfolio is 20%, and the expected return on the optimal risky portfolio is 10%, the standard deviation of an investor's optimal portfolio that is allocated 70% to the risk-free asset is closest to:
A. 4.7%.
B. 5.2%.
C. 6.0%.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Sharpe ratio for the optimal risky asset portfolio (a combination of the passive market index portfolio and the optimal active security selection portfolio) is its excess return (risk premium) divided by its standard deviation, so we have 0.45 ~ (10 - 3) / , and the standard deviation of the optimal risky portfolio = 7/ 0.45
15.55%. With a 70% allocation to the risk-free asset, the investors optimal portfolio will have a standard deviation of (1 - 07) 15.55 = 4.67%. (Study Session 18, LOS 64.f)